Talk:Saint Oda

Mix-up

This article seems to have mixed up the Oda's. thought? --evrik ^(talk) 18:31, 23 March 2007 (UTC)

Although I don't doubt there is considered to be such a saint by some churches, the article is confused. I'm not sure there was such a kingdom as Scotland at the time she is supposed to have lived. Who was her father? Where was he king of? One external link describes her as a French princess? PatGallacher 21:42, 3 June 2007 (UTC)

Just checking, Kenneth I of Scotland, who is usually regarded as the first king of Scotland (although his article points out that this may not be so clear) lived in the 9th century, a while after this saint, so describing her as a "Scottish princess" is anachronistic and begs the question of exactly where she did come from. PatGallacher 16:01, 4 June 2007 (UTC)

By that sense theres no such thing as a Scottish nationality today. Since there is no official country of Scotland. If she came from land that is now known as Scotland then she was Scottish. After all people still refer to Irish missionaries in Germany/England/Iceland etc. despite the fact that there was no Kingdom of Ireland at that time. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 195.194.215.249 (talk) 10:50, 11 October 2011 (UTC)

While the Kingdom of Scotland did not exist as such, there were a number of smaller "kingdoms" at the time in what is now Scotland. I went and looked at the original Latin of the 8th century source and it does mention "natione Scottam." This most likely refers to Dal Riada, the kingdom of the Scots, but might be argued to be any of the kingdoms in that region, especially with the possibility of sub-kings and over-kings. Scholarly sources would help a lot, though I do appreciate the main article breaks down which details come from which manuscript sources (at least by date).Ericaceae (talk) 22:37, 10 June 2013 (UTC)

Agreed; there were several ‘petty kingdoms’ in Scotland at the time, some of them, like Fife, corresponding to earldoms of the high Middle Ages. Dalriada appears to have been the principal Scottish (Irish- or Gaelic-speaking) power, but there were also Pictish realms in the north & east, with British (P-Celtic-speaking) and Anglo-Saxon territories in the Lowlands (including Galloway and Lothian respectively). So I think it’s something of a non sequitur to state that the princess story is undermined by the absence of a Kingdom of Scotland as such. (I note also that the statement is unsourced, therefore smacking a bit of WP:OR.) It’s certainly a problem that there aren’t more specific details concerning her parentage, but the story isn‘t as implausible on its face as that sentence would imply.—Odysseus1479 04:38, 15 October 2013 (UTC)